Union Government [legislature & Executive] Practice Questions Answers Test With Solutions

Question : 1

Which of the following non-members of Parliament has the right to address it?

a) Solicitor-General of India

b) Attorney General of India

c) Chief Justice of India

d) Chief Election Commissioner

Answer: (b)

Question : 2

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

a) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules

b) In the Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based

c) A motion of no-confidence once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted

d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence

Answer: (b)

In the case of a No-confidence motion, there is no need to set out the grounds on which it is based. NoConfidence motion is introduced only in the Lok Sabha by the opposition and needs the support of not less than 50 members of LS for its introduction.

Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for a motion of no-confidence. Any member may give a written notice; the speaker shall read the motion of no-confidence in the House and ask all those persons to rise who favours that the motion is taken up. If there are 50 MPs in favour, the speaker allows a date for discussing the motion.

Question : 3

Consider the following statements

  1. The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is distributed among the States on the basis of the population and the area of the State.
  2. The 84th Amendment Act of the Constitution of India lifted the freeze on the delimitation of constituencies imposed by the 42nd Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) Only 2

b) Only 1

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is distributed among States in such a way that the ratio between the number of seats allotted to each State and the population of the State is, as far as practicable, the same for all States.

The 84th Amendment to the Constitution (which was numbered as the 91st Amendment Bill before it was passed in Parliament) lifted the freeze on the delimitation of constituencies, as stipulated by the 42nd Constitution amendment of 1976, and allowed delimitation within States on the basis of the 1991 Census.

Question : 4 [SSC LDO & LDC 2011]

The President of India can issue a proclamation of National Emergency only on the written recommendation of

a) Parliament

b) The Council of Ministers of the Union

c) The Prime Minister

d) The Cabinet consisting of only Cabinet Ministers of the Union

Answer: (b)

National emergency is caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. The President can declaresuch an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Such a proclamation must be approved by the Parliament within one month.

Question : 5

Consider the following statements in relation to the election of the president of India.

  1. The total value of votes in the president’s election is about 10,98,903 votes with each MP carrying a vote value of 708. The vote weight of an MLA depends on the population of the state he or she represents.
  2. For the purpose of calculation of the value of votes of MPs / MLAs in President’s Election, the population of Census 1971 is considered.
Which of the following is correct?

a) Only II

b) Both I and II

c) Only I

d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b)

In relation to the election of President of India–

  1. The total value of votes in the presidential election is about 10,98,903 votes with each MP Carrying a vote value of 708. The vote weight of an MLA depends on the population of the state he or she represents.
  2. For the purpose of calculation of the value of votes of MPs/MLAs in the president’s Election, the population of the census 1971 is considered.

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