Model 2 Formula method ‘M1D1W1 = M2D2W2’ Section-Wise Topic Notes With Detailed Explanation And Example Questions
MOST IMPORTANT quantitative aptitude - 7 EXERCISES
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Top 199+ Basic Time and Work Aptitude MCQs with Answers »
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Top 200+ Time and Work Problem Solving By Formula Method »
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New 189+ Time & Work MCQs Practice Test for BANK Exams »
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Top 199+ Time & Work MCQs: Men Women Child for BANK Exam »
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Top 199+ Time and Work Efficiency Based Aptitude MCQ Quiz »
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New 299+ Time and Work Aptitude Test On Individual Wages »
The following question based on time & work topic of quantitative aptitude
(a) Rs.11,600
(b) Rs.11,700
(c) Rs.17,100
(d) Rs.16,100
The correct answers to the above question in:
Answer: (c)
5 men ≡ 7 women
[Both earn same amount in 1 day]
7 men ≡ $7/5 × 7 = 49/5$ women
7 men + 13 women
= $49/5 + 13 = 114/5$ women
Now, Since, 7 women ≡ Rs.5250
$114/5$ women ≡ $5250/7 × 114/5$ = Rs.17100
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Read more formula method m1d1w1 m2d2w2 Based Quantitative Aptitude Questions and Answers
Question : 1
A, B and C together earn Rs.150 per day while A and C together earn Rs.94 and B and C together earn Rs.76. The daily earning of ‘C’ is
a) Rs.56
b) Rs.20
c) Rs.75
d) Rs.34
Answer »Answer: (b)
The daily earning of ‘C’
= Daily earning of (A + C) and (B + C) - Daily earning of (A + B + C)
= 94 + 76 - 150 = Rs.20
Question : 2
2 men and 1 woman together can complete a piece of work in 14 days, while 4 women and 2 men together can do it in 8 days. If a man gets Rs.600 per day, how much should a woman get per day?
a) Rs.400
b) Rs.450
c) Rs.360
d) Rs.480
Answer »Answer: (a)
According to the question,
(2 × 14) men + 14 women
= 16 men + 32 women
(28 - 16) men =(32–14) women
12 men = 18 women
2 men = 3 women
1 woman = $2/3$ man
Amount received by 1 woman per day
= $2/3 × 600$ = Rs.400
Question : 3
A and B undertook to do a piece of work for Rs.4500. A alone could do it in 8 days and B alone in 12 days. With the assistance of C they finished the work in 4 days. Then C’s share of the money is
a) Rs.2250
b) Rs.1500
c) Rs.375
d) Rs.750
Answer »Answer: (d)
Using Rule 25If A, B and C finish the work in m, n and p days respectively and they receive the total wages R, then the ratio of their wages is $1/m : 1/n : 1/p$
C’s 1 day’s work
= $1/4 - (1/8 + 1/12) = 1/4 - ({3 + 2}/24)$
= $1/4 - 5/24 = {6 - 5}/24 = 1/24$
A : B : C = $1/8 : 1/12 : 1/24$ = 3 : 2 : 1
C’s share = Rs.$(1/6 × 4500)$ = Rs.750
time & work Shortcuts and Techniques with Examples
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Model 1 Basics on Time & Work
Defination & Shortcuts … -
Model 2 Formula method ‘M1D1W1 = M2D2W2’
Defination & Shortcuts … -
Model 3 Man leaves & joins
Defination & Shortcuts … -
Model 4 Working with Man, Woman, Child
Defination & Shortcuts … -
Model 5 Split & Fraction of work
Defination & Shortcuts … -
Model 6 Efficiency of the worker
Defination & Shortcuts … -
Model 7 Working with individual wages
Defination & Shortcuts …
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